There are no messianic prophecies where the word "messiah" is used. The messiah is never called "the messiah" in the T'nach (Jewish bible) -- not even once.
Some Christian translations (the KJV for example) have "the messiah" in their translation of Daniel 9, but the Hebrew has no definite article (the word "the") used at all. If the phrase "the messiah" were used the Hebrew would have the letter "הַ" (heh) in front of "מָשִׁיחַ" (moshiach / messiah). This means that there is no "the messiah" in Daniel 9.
The Hebrew word מָשִׁיחַ / "moshiach" (christos in Greek and translated as "christ" in English) means "anointed one" in English. It appears 39 times in the T'nach, although most Christian translations rarely translate it as "messiah" (usually only in Daniel 9 or T'hillim / Psalm 2). This selective translation appears to be aimed at making it seem that "messiah" only applies to Jesus.
Thirty-four of the instances of מָשִׁיחַ / "moshiach" are nouns and the remaining five are adjectives. The term is most often used to speak of the high priest, the first of which was Moses' brother, Aaron. Aaron is pictured in the image in this post. Jesus was never a messiah (even though the Christian bible claims that he was).
This is clear to anyone familiar with Hebrew. There is a etymological (linguistic) relationship between the words מָשִֽׁיחַ (moshiach / messiah) and מִשְׁחַת (mish'ḥat / “anointment of”) in the phrase שֶֽׁמֶן מִשְׁחַת־קֹֽדֶשׁ (which occurs twice in Sh'mot / Exodus 30:25 "Make it into sacred anointing oil. It shall be a blended compound, as made by a skilled perfumer, [made especially for] the sacred anointing oil" and again in Sh'mot / Exodus 30:31 "Speak to the Israelites and tell them, 'This shall be the sacred anointing oil to Me for all generations.") makes a clear and direct link between the “Messiah” (an anointed king) and the “Oil of Anointment of Holiness” which must be used to make a person a messiah.
This oil was never used on Jesus, and since he was not in an unbroken and uncontested line to the throne he would have to have been personally anointed with the very specific compound of spices and oil whose exact composition is stipulated in Sh'mot / Exodus 30:22-33 for use in the “anointment” of Jewish kings or priests: "G-d spoke to Moses, saying: 30:23 You must take the finest fragrances, 500 [shekels] of distilled myrrh, [two] half portions, each consisting of 250 [shekels] of fragrant cinnamon and 250 [shekels] of fragrant cane, 30:24 and 500 shekels of cassia, all measured by the sanctuary standard, along with a gallon of olive oil. 30:25 Make it into sacred anointing oil. It shall be a blended compound, as made by a skilled perfumer, [made especially for] the sacred anointing oil. 30:26 Then use it to anoint the Communion Tent, the Ark of Testimony, 30:27 the table and all its utensils, the menorah and its utensils, the incense altar, 30:28 the sacrificial altar and all its utensils, the washstand and its base. 30:29 You will thus sanctify them, making them holy of holies, so that anything touching them becomes sanctified. 30:30 You must also anoint Aaron and his sons, sanctifying them as priests to Me. 30:31 Speak to the Israelites and tell them, 'This shall be the sacred anointing oil to Me for all generations. 30:32 Do not pour it on the skin of any [unauthorized] person, and do not duplicate it with a similar formula. It is holy, and it must remain sacred to you. 30:33 If a person blends a similar formula, or places it on an unauthorized person, he shall be cut off [spiritually] from his people."
None of that was done to Jesus and he did not have the right to have it done to him (lineage, was never a king, was not anointed at all let alone by a known prophet as is required). Luke can state that Jesus was a messiah -- but the T'nach makes it clear that he was not.
The psalms are not prophecy, and T'hillim / Psalm 45 is speaking about King David (who was a messiah). All Davidic kings are called “anointed" (messiah). Jesus was never a messiah -- and indeed we are told in the psalm that this person will have children who will become princes. "Instead of your forefathers will be your sons; you shall appoint them as princes throughout the land." (line 17). Jesus had no children.
Where are Jesus' sons who he appointed as princes throughout the land of Israel?
Luke 2:11 may say "Today in the town of David a Savior has been born to you; he is the Messiah, the L-rd" -- but anyone can claim and state anything. In reality if Jesus ever existed he was never a messiah, and he most certainly wasn't G-d! Aside from not being a messiah Jesus did not have the sons who were princes in Israel as per the psalm (David did).
The metaphors in this poem / psalm go on to speak of a military man -- which David most certainly was, and Jesus most certainly was not.
"Gird a sword on your thigh, O mighty one, your majesty and your glory." (T'hillim / Psalm 45:5).
The subject of the psalm is told to prepare his metaphorical sword for the “battle” of Torah with "arrows" of Torah which been sharpened and nations fall as these words enter their hearts. G-d’s throne is eternal, as is that of the judges who represent His interests on Earth. Because they love righteousness and hate evil, G-d has appointed them to judge.
The fact that the subject (David) is said to be handsome and charming does not mean that this sentence about David is a messianic prophecy about Jesus. There have been, and still are, many handsome and charming men in the world. Yet another so-called prophecy which is nothing of the sort.