The second to last of seven misuses of T'hillim / Psalm 69 by the list maker. This psalm begins "For the conductor, on שׁוֹשַׁנִּים / shoshannim, of David." (שׁוֹשַׁנִּים / shoshannim are roses and this is a poetic way of speaking of the Jewish people who were David's roses).
Line 22 does speak of being given vinegar to drink: "They put gall into my food and for my thirst they gave me vinegar to drink." Some tie Jesus' thirsting to T'hillim / Psalm 62:22 (21 in Christian translations) which also says: "They put רֹ֑אשׁ / poison / gall into my food and for my thirst they gave me vinegar to drink." -- also tied to the same "proof text" of Matthew 27:34 claims to "prove" that non-prophecy (no doubt we will find it later in the list). Yet again this is a psalm about David (line 1 reads "For the conductor, on shoshannim, of David").
But again something so "ordinary" is not a messianic prophecy.
The subject of this psalm admits to being a sinner -- so vinegar or no vinegar it does not fit Jesus. T'hillim / Psalm 69:6. "O G-d, You know my folly, and my acts of guilt are not concealed from You."
If Jesus is without sin, without guilt -- how can a missionary claim that anything in this psalm is about Jesus?
In T'hillim / Psalm 69 King David is speaking about being persecuted by those he had thought were his friends -- he is deserted by the very ones who should be comforting him. Not only did comfort him -- they tormented him, bringing him food spoiled with vinegar to "quench his thirst." They did all they could to make him more miserable. . .
Did Jesus even drink vinegar?
Or did some later gospel writer decide to insert that he did to make it seem that he did something mentioned in the T'nach (Jewish bible?).
The Book of Matthew (the passage given as "proof", 27:34) says that Jesus was offered a drink made of vinegar mixed with gall (poison).
But the Book of Mark says Jesus offered wine mixed with myrrh "Then they offered him wine mixed with myrrh, but he did not take it." Mark 15:23.
So was it vinegar, or was it wine?
And where is the רֹ֑אשׁ / poison / gall? It is not in Mark! It is also not in Luke, or John.
If the רֹ֑אשׁ / poison / gall is missing from Mark, Luke and John does that mean Jesus did not "fulfill" this "prophecy"? This is obviously sarcasm -- but applicable -- because if Jesus did not drink the vinegar or poison does that mean a missionary would think he was not the messiah because he "failed to fulfill" the prophecy?
According to Mark, Luke and John he DID not fulfill the "prophecy" as there was no רֹ֑אשׁ / poison / gall.
Likewise in some of the gospels Jesus refuses the drink and in others he accepts it. Which version is prophetic? They contradict each other.
The Luke 23:36 says "They offered him wine vinegar." The author seems to be trying to reconcile Matthew and Mark. John 19:29-30 says "A jar of wine vinegar was there" -- wine vinegar, and even more refined reconciliation of Matthew and Mark!
Contradictions abound in the Christian bible. In Mark Jesus does not drink the liquid "Then they offered him wine mixed with myrrh, but he did not take it." Mark 15:23, but in John he DOES drink it. They "lifted it to Jesus’ lips. 30 When he had received the drink, Jesus said, “It is finished.”
Bottom line: every human who has ever lived has, at some point, been thirsty. Some have drunk vinegar (by accident when a wine spoils, or perhaps out of spite. The psalm is King David speaking of how mean his enemies were to him -- so mean as to do underhanded and spiteful things. The vinegar in the psalm (a poem after all!) is allegorical, not literal.