No one is called “Yeshua” in Y'shayahu / Isaiah 12:2.
Neither does it say anyone WILL be called "Yeshua" (or Jesus, or "salvation").
Matthew 1:21 does not say that Jesus will be called Jesus, or Yeshua either. It was written in Greek and it says that he'll be named Ἰησοῦς / Iēsous. The letter "j" did not appear until the 16th century of the common era -- ergo "Jesus" is a fairly modern made up name for the person known in the Christian bible as Ἰησοῦς / Iēsous.
Hebrew nouns are either feminine or masculine.
The Hebrew word for "salvation" is feminine.
Let me repeat that.
The Hebrew word for salvation is יְשׁוּעָה y'shu'ah -- and is feminine -- ergo this claim that Jesus would be called "salvation" is impossible unless Jesus were a girl.
There was a Hebrew name which is similar to יְשׁוּעָה y'shu'ah, and that is the name יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a (masculine).
The word for salvation, יְשׁוּעָה y'shu'ah, and the name יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a are spelled differently. Notice not only the heh (ה) at the end of the word for salvation, but notice to that the Masoretic symbols (cantillation) representing vowels (Hebrew is spelled without vowels) are DIFFERENT as well.
Is it likely that Jesus' Hebrew name would have been יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a (masculine name)?
Not very likely at all.
Indeed it is very unlikely to have been his name based on what we DO know.
All the writings about Jesus were in Greek. There is no known Hebrew name for him.
So all the modern "Hebrew Christians" who insist on calling Jesus "Yeshua" are simply making up a name based on nothing really. Based on, what, the HOPE that his name meant salvation? As already pointed out the word for salvation is feminine!
Ἰησοῦς / Iesous (the Greek name given for Jesus in all the early papyri) would equate to the Aramaic יֵֽשׁוּ / Yéshu. It does not and cannot represent the Hebrew form יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a because Ἰησοῦς / Iesous would transliterate into "Jesuas" (not Jesus). Have you ever seen any Christians call Jesus “Jesuas”? Ἰησοῦς / Iésous is a mistranslation of the name Y'hōshū'a / Joshua.
The transliteration of Y'hōshū'a should be Ιοσοα (Iosoa) or Ιοσοας (Iosoas), Ιοσαυα (Iosaua), or Ιοσα (Iosa), but the not-really Septuagint translation of יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ / Y'hōshū'a (Joshua) is spelt Ἰησοῦς (“Iēsous”). The letter “-a” (ע / 'ayin) at the end of יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ / Y'hōshū'a (Joshua) is not represented in the Greek translation in the "not-really Septuagint."
The ע / 'ayin should be represented in a Greek translation -- because the ע / 'ayin is a part of the word’s root (Hebrew words are based on root words). Not only are they missing the ע 'ayin ("-a") there is another issue with the translation.
The various Hebrew names that are similar (meaning those names that begin the letters יְהוֹ־ (“Y'ho–”) in Hebrew) are all translated Ιω– (“Io–”).
But the translators did not translate יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ / Y'hōshū'a (Joshua) with Ιω– (“Io–”).
Why is it the only name begining with יְהוֹ־ (“Y'ho–”) in Hebrew that begins Ἰη-- (“Iē") and not Ιω– (“Io–”) is
יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ Y'hoshu'a (Joshua / Jesus) Ἰησοῦς (“Iēsous”)?
Is it possible that the translators translated the other names properly, but somehow when it came to יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ / Y'hōshū'a (Joshua) they suddenly made a mistake?
Check for yourself.
Examine the fourteen Hebrew names in the T'nach that begin with the letters יְהוֹ־ (“Y'ho–”) in Hebrew, and then compare them to the transliterations of these names in the not really-septuagint.
Every single of those fourteen names which were translated into Greek begins with Ιω– (“Io–”) in all of cases EXCEPT for Ἰησοῦς / Iésous / יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ Y'hoshu'a / Joshua.
יְהוֹאָחָז Y'ho'aḥaz is spelt Ιωαχας (“Ioakhas”),
יְהוֹאָשׁ Y'ho'ash is spelt Ιωας (“Ioas”),
יְהוֹזָבָד Y'hozavad is spelt Ιωζαβεδ (“Iozabed”),
יְהוֹיָכִין Y'hoyachin is spelt Ιωακιμ (“Ioakim”) [although this is actually an error],
יְהוֹיָקִים Y'hoyachin is also spelt Ιωακιμ (“Ioakim”),
יְהוֹנָדָב Y'honadav is spelt Ιωναδαβ (“Ioanadab”),
יְהוֹנָתָן Y'honatan is spelt Ιωναθαν (“Ioanathan”),
יְהוֹעַדִּין Y'ho'addin is spelt Ιωαδιν (“Ioadin”),
יְהוֹצָדָק Y'hotzadak is spelt Ιωσαδακ (“Iosadak”),
יְהוֹרָם Y'horam is spelt Ιωραμ (“Ioram”),
יְהוֹשֶֽׁבַע Y'hosheva is spelt Ιωσαβεε (“Iosabee”),
יְהוֹשַׁבְעַת Y'hoshav'at is spelt Ιωσαβεθ (“Iosabeth”), and
יְהוֹשָׁפָט Y'hoshafat is spelt Ιωσαφατ (“Iosaphat”).
All fourteen begin with יְהוֹ־ (“Y'ho–”) in Hebrew -- and all are all translated Ιω– (“Io–”).
יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ Y'hoshu'a is spelt Ἰησοῦς (“Iēsous”).
This seems to be less an error (since the other fourteen names were translated correctly) than to have been a deliberate choice by the translator(s) to make it look as though the spelling of the transliteration of יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ Y'hoshu'a into Greek has been altered to make it match the way יֵֽשׁוּ Yéshu (“Jesus”) is spelt in the Christian bible.
It looks like whoever translated Y'hōshū'a into the Greek doctored the translation to make it "fit" יֵֽשׁוּ Yéshu (“Jesus”) because the Greek in the translations is not the correct translation of the Hebrew into the Greek.
Just another false claim by people apparently ignorant of basic Hebrew, and another claimed "prophecy" (Jesus to be named Jesus or "salvation") is patently false.
What of Y'shayahu / Isaiah 12:2? Does it say anything about the messiah being named "salvation"? Nope. "Here is the G-d of my salvation, I shall trust and not fear; for the strength and praise of the Eternal the L-rd was my salvation."
Salvation in the T'nach (Jewish bible) always refers to G-d saving our physical lives. Our immortal souls are perfect and do not need "saving." In Y'shayahu / Isaiah 12 Isaiah is telling us that when we Jews see the other nations humbled, we will thank G-d for allowing us to survive, because we know that we are far from perfect and have done much to anger Him. But we know that He loves us and we trust in Him and do not fear. We joyfully draw water from the well of salvation (this verse comprising the song quoted in the title of this synopsis) and we thank G-d, publicizing His great deeds. Sing to G-d for all that He has done for us!