Luke 2:32, the claimed "proof" text says nothing about anyone being called by a new name. Luke 2:32 has Simeon saying Jesus is "a light, for revelation to the Gentiles, and for glory to your people Israel." False prophecy -- the world is still in darkness, Jesus brought death and destruction to the Jews -- not glory. . . and this claim does not in any way fulfill Time and again Jesus states that he did not come for the gentiles, but for the Jews. Read Matthew 10:5-6 "“Go nowhere among the Gentiles and enter no town of the Samaritans, but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel." and Matthew 15:24 "“I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel.” In his ministry Jesus did not reach out to the gentiles. He did help a few here or there -- but he did not have a ministry to the gentile world and never left Israel (Judah and Galilee) to preach in the gentile world. The passage the list maker claims is about Jesus is about the Jewish people. Read it: “For the sake of Zion, I (G-d) will not be silent, and for the sake of Jerusalem I will not rest, until her righteousness comes out like brilliance, and her salvation burns like a torch. And nations shall see your righteousness (Jerusalem -- the city of the Jewish nation -- and by extension the Jews) , and all kings your glory, and you shall be called a new name, which the mouth of the L-rd shall pronounce.” Y’shayahu / Isaiah 62:1 – 2. Her righteousness. Her salvation. Jesus was not a "her." The "her" is Jerusalem. What of "your glory?" It also refers to Jerusalem and by extension the Jewish people. It is not about any glory associated with Jesus. Far from glorifying the Jews Christianity has, for 2000 years, hated the Jews --
From the Crusades where Jews were slaughtered to pogroms (anti-Jewish riots) in Europe in the 19th century (four million Jews fled to Western Europe and America due to persecutions in Eastern Europe), to the Holocaust were half of the entire Jewish population was murdered the rejection / isolation continues today. Unfortunately the above is just a sample of the ill treatment of Jews by the non-Jewish nations. Regardless of the claims of Luke 2:32, Isaiah is speaking on behalf of G-d in Y’shayahu / Isaiah 62:1, and verse 2 is about the Jewish people. “For the sake of Zion, I (G-d) will not be silent, and for the sake of Jerusalem I will not rest, until her righteousness comes out like brilliance, and her salvation burns like a torch. And nations shall see your righteousness (the Jewish nation) , and all kings your glory, and you shall be called a new name, which the mouth of the L-rd shall pronounce.” Y’shayahu / Isaiah 62:1 – 2. How can we be sure that G-d is speaking of the Jewish nation when He says "you shall be called a new name"and not about Jesus? Read the first lines of verse 1: “For the sake of Zion” – Israel, the Jewish people. Not convinced? Read the rest of the chapter – read verse 5: “No longer shall "forsaken" be said of you, and "desolate" shall no longer be said of your land, for you shall be called "My desire is in her," and your land, "inhabited," for the L-rd desires you, and your land shall be inhabited.” The Jewish people were exiled and removed from the land of Israel. G-d is saying that the Jews will be returned to the land of Israel. Jesus lived in Judah (Israel) – this verse does not “fit” him. Want even more proof? G-d tells us what the new name will be. G-d says “you shall be called חֶפְצִי־בָ֔הּ / Hephzi-bah / “My desire is in HER.” Verse 4. Jesus was not a “her.” חֶפְצִי־בָ֔הּ / Hephzi-bah is also given as the name for also the mother of King Manasseh in M'lachim Beit / 2 Kings 21:1. Nouns in Hebrew do not have a gender neutral. Nouns are either masculine or feminine. This is feminine -- and Jesus was not (feminine)! Still not convinced even though we are told that the name is a feminine one? Read verse 11: “"Say to the daughter of Zion, 'Behold your salvation has come.'” Missionaries, like the creator of the list of 365 supposed prophecies about Jesus, love to take a verse that sounds like it might (possibly) fit Jesus and completely ignore the actual context. Isaiah, speaking for G-d, is clearly speaking of the Jewish nation in the time of the real messiah – when the exiles will be returned to the land and peace will reign.
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