We’re still on Shmuel 2 / 2 Samuel 7, and it has nothing to do with “the son of G-d.” The line just prior to the proof text (13) says "I (G-d) will raise up your (King David’s) seed that shall proceed from your body after you, and I will establish his kingdom. He shall build a house for My name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever.”
Ergo the missionary’s claim that this passage is about the son of G-d is refuted in the text itself. G-d is speaking to King David and He (G-d) states that it is the sperm / seed (living descendants from the sperm) who is spoken of in this passage. Furthermore it says that this “son of David” will build G-d’s Temple (house). King Solomon built G-d’s house (King David’s son).
Jesus never built a Temple for G-d, and indeed the Second Temple which was built after the Babylonian Exile and expanded by Herod was destroyed a mere 40 years after Jesus’ supposed death. Ergo Jesus does not fit the so called prophetic passage in any way, shape or form.
Proof texts are often lifted out of context – and when read in context the claim for Jesus quickly falls apart. Thus reading line 14 (the “proof text” of the list maker) which says “I will be to him a father, and he shall be to Me a son; so that when he goes astray I will chasten him with the rod of men, and with the stripes of the sons of Adam” while ignoring the previous line where King Solomon (David’s son) is clearly identified and Jesus’ excluded is dishonest.
“I will be to him a father, and he shall be to Me a son; so that when he goes astray I will chasten him with the rod of men, and with the stripes of the sons of Adam.” Shmuel 2 / 2 Samuel 7:14.
The passage does not say IF this son of David goes astray, but WHEN.
Christian missionaries insist that Jesus was “without sin.” By their yardstick Shmuel 2 / 2 Samuel 7:12-14 cannot be about Jesus. When did Jesus “go astray”? How do they deal with this obvious problem?
They ignore it.
Did you notice the list maker calls this 2 Samuel 7:14a? That "a" is important to the missionary.
Did you notice that?
This is ONE sentence, but the list maker wants you to read the first half of the sentence “I will be to him a father, and he shall be to Me a son"
The list maker does NOT want you to read the rest of that same sentence "so that when he goes astray I will chasten him with the rod of men, and with the stripes of the sons of Adam”
How can something be prophetic when one ignores half of it???
By ignoring the second half they do not have to deal with Jesus going astray. . .
This can’t be explained away by missionaries who claim that while Jesus was without sin he “took on the sins of the world on the cross.” Nope. Line 14 clearly says this “son” goes astray.
And that doesn't fit Jesus so the list maker just cuts it off from his "prophecy."
Not exactly honest, is it?
How about Luke 1:32 which the list maker "ties" to the first half of Shmuel 2 / 2 Samuel 7:14?
Luke 1:32 declares “He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High. The L-rd G-d will give him the throne of his father David.”
Claims are easy to make, but the fact is that Jesus was never a king. To claim that he was a king, or that he is “king in heaven” is again easy to claim – but “where is the proof”? We know for a fact that Jesus was never given the throne of David while he lived.
IF Jesus were son of the most high he could not have been the messiah. Quite simply the Hebrew word מָשִֽׁיחַ (moshiach) -- or "messiah" in English translates to "anointed one."
The noun מָשִֽׁיחַ (moshiach aka anointed one), in English "messiah" occurs 39 times in the T'nach. Thirty-four are nouns and the remaining five are adjectives.
Additionally there are other closely related words, such as מִשְׁחָה mish'ḥah (“anointment”) which occurs, for example, in the expression שֶֽׁמֶן מִשְׁחַת קֹֽדֶשׁ shĕmĕn mish'ḥat kōdĕsh (“anointment-of-holiness oil”)— this term is found twice in Sh'mot / Exodus 30:25 and again in Sh'mot / Exodus 30:31. שֶֽׁמֶן מִשְׁחַת קֹֽדֶשׁ shĕmĕn mish'ḥat kōdĕsh (“anointment-of-holiness oil”) is a special type of anointment with a particular oil for kings -- and this was never done with Jesus. Jesus was never a moshiach (messiah) -- and he did not have the "birth right" to be a rightful king of the Jews.
The Hebrew word is inseparable with the concept of the special oil in my last paragraph. This was a special mixture of spice and olive oil that was used for “anointing” of kings and priests. It is called שֶֽׁמֶן מִשְׁחַת קֹדֶשׁ shemen mish'ḥat kodesh (“Oil of Anointment of Sanctity”) in the passage of Sh'mot / Exodus 30:22-33 which gives the formula for making it and how to properly use it. . .
"G-d spoke to Moses, saying: 30:23 You must take the finest fragrances, 500 [shekels] of distilled myrrh, [two] half portions, each consisting of 250 [shekels] of fragrant cinnamon and 250 [shekels] of fragrant cane, 30:24 and 500 shekels of cassia, all measured by the sanctuary standard, along with a gallon of olive oil. 30:25 Make it into sacred anointing oil. It shall be a blended compound, as made by a skilled perfumer, [made especially for] the sacred anointing oil. 30:26 Then use it to anoint the Communion Tent, the Ark of Testimony, 30:27 the table and all its utensils, the menorah and its utensils, the incense altar, 30:28 the sacrificial altar and all its utensils, the washstand and its base. 30:29 You will thus sanctify them, making them holy of holies, so that anything touching them becomes sanctified. 30:30 You must also anoint Aaron and his sons, sanctifying them as priests to Me. 30:31 Speak to the Israelites and tell them, 'This shall be the sacred anointing oil to Me for all generations. 30:32 Do not pour it on the skin of any [unauthorized] person, and do not duplicate it with a similar formula. It is holy, and it must remain sacred to you. 30:33 If a person blends a similar formula, or places it on an unauthorized person, he shall be cut off [spiritually] from his people." Sh'mot / Exodus 30:22-33.
Thus Saul, David and Solomon were all messiahs -- anointed kings.
Isaiah 45:1 uses the term לִמְשִׁיחוֹ֮ (has anointed).
Rashi's commentary on Isaiah 45:1 is: "Every title of greatness is called anointing. Comp. (Num. 18:8) “To you I have given them for greatness (לְמָשְׁחָה).” Our Sages, however, said: To the King Messiah, the Holy One, blessed be He, says, “I complain to you about Cyrus,” as it is stated in Tractate Megillah 12a." The only kohén (priest) who is ever called הַכֹּהֵן הַמָּשִֽׁיחַ hakohén hamashiyaḥ “the anointed kohén / priest" is the Chief Kohén (in Vayikra / Leviticus 4:3, 4:5, 4:16 and 6:15).
Note that מִשְׁחַת mish'ḥat is basically the same word as מָשִֽׁיחַ moshiach (a “messiah”).
A person cannot, therefore, be “anointed” (in the sense that this word is used in the Scriptures) with water, or with a dove, or with “holy spirit”, or with anything else apart from the compound of spices and olive oil that is specified in the passage I referred to a moment ago. Thus by the very definition of "messiah" in the T'nach Jesus was not a messiah. Jesus was not properly anointed with the special holy oil used to anoint messiahs: שֶֽׁמֶן מִשְׁחַת קֹדֶשׁ shemen mish'ḥat kodesh (“Oil of Anointment of Sanctity”).
So if, as the list maker contends, Jesus was the literal son of G-d (son of the most high) then he could not have been a Jewish king (messiah). . . The Torah (D'varim / Deuteronomy 14:1) does call the Jewish people as בָּנִים לַיְיָ אֱלֹהֵיכֶם (“children of HaShem your G-d”), something that it says of no other nation. . . but Jesus (as a Jew) was no more or less special than any other Jew.