T'hillim / Psalm 2 is used seven times by the list maker as "proof" that Jesus was the messiah / king. When read in context it is clear that the psalm was written by King David about himself. This includes line 7."The L-rd said to me, "You are My son; this day have I begotten you." T'hillim / Psalm 2:1-7.
King David, the author of the psalm said "he L-rd said to me. . ."
The son in line 7 is KING DAVID. The L-rd said to David (to "me" the author of this psalm) -- "you are my son."
Psalms are not prohecy -- they were written by King David and often tell of his personal struggles, his life, and his desires. They are prayers. . . poems which were later sung in the Temple and which Jews recite to this day in praise of G-d. . . Line 7 of this psalm is not about Jesus or a prophecy that the messiah will be "a son of G-d" -- yet again we have the list maker taking a line out of context which is clearly not what the listmaker presents it to be.
King David, author of the psalm, in lines 6 and 7 has G-d speaking to the kings who are fighting him (David), saying "But I have enthroned My king on Zion, My holy mount. I will tell of the decree; The L-rd said to me (King David), "You are My son; this day have I begotten you." T'hillim / Psalm 2:6-7.
In T'hillim / Psalms 2:7 G-d refers to King David as His son just as He refers to King Solomon as His son in Shmuel Beit / 2 Samuel 7:14, and He even refers to King David as His firstborn in T'hillim / Psalms 89:28. What "new meaning" should there be implied? All these passages tell us that God declares the existence of a special relationship, a father-and-son relationship, between Himself and to whom He refers as a son or sons.
Read the psalm from line one through line seven: "Why have nations gathered and [why do] kingdoms think vain things? Kings of a land stand up, and nobles take counsel together against the L-rd and against His anointed (messiah)? "Let us break their bands and cast off their cords from us." He Who dwells in Heaven laughs; the L-rd mocks them. Then He speaks to them in His wrath; and He frightens them with His sore displeasure. "But I have enthroned My king on Zion, My holy mount. I will tell of the decree; The L-rd said to me, "You are My son; this day have I begotten you." T'hillim / Psalm 2:1-7.
The list maker gives Matthew 3:17 as "proof" that Jesus was the son of G-d. "And a voice from heaven said, “This is my Son,whom I love; with him I am well pleased.”
Someone (John?) hears a voice. Did he hear the voice of G-d? Did he hear a demon trying to fool him? Did he merely hallucinate hearing a voice?
D'varim / Deuteronomy 13 warns us “If there should stand up in your midst a prophet or a dreamer of a dream, and he will produce to you a sign or a wonder, and the sign or the wonder comes about, of which he spoke to you, saying "Let us follow gods of others that you did not know (at Sinai) and we shall worship them do not hearken to the words of that prophet or to that dreamer of a dream, for HASHEM, your G-d, is testing you to know whether you love HASHEM, your G-d with all your heart and with all your soul. HASHEM, your G-d, shall you follow and Him shall you fear; His commandments shall you observe and to His voice shall you hearken; Him shall you serve and to Him shall you cleave. And that prophet and that dreamer of a dream shall be put to death, for he had spoken perversion against HASHEM, your G-d Who takes you out of the land of Egypt, and Who redeems you from the house of slavery to make you stray from the path on which HASHEM, you G-d, has commanded you to go; and you shall destroy the evil from your midst.” (Artscroll Stone Edition Chumash) D’varim / Deuteronomy 13:2-6.
The mere claim of someone having a personal revelation is worthless says the Torah -- if that claim in any way contradicts the Torah. A man claiming to be G-d, or even the son of G-d (a demi-god) is reversing the Torah and is thus false.
Ask yourself, why should you believe an individual's revelation whether it is from the Christian bible, the Book of Mormon or the Koran? The Torah warns us time and again not to be led astray and to not follow any "god" or "strange worship" that we did not know at Sinai -- and that includes worshiping Jesus as a god, or even a "son" of G-d.
Some missionaries will say "what about the part where it says TODAY I have begotten you." David was already alive, so it can't be about him.
Well, by that reasoning it can't be about Jesus either. Jesus wasn't alive when King David wrote that psalm about 1000 years BCE! And for those Christians who think Jesus was eternal -- well that just means he wasn't "begotten" at the time this psalm was written either!
This is a poem -- and David is speaking poetically. G-d anointed him as a king (he was born in a lowly status). In T'hillim / Psalms 2:7 G-d refers to King David as His son just as He refers to King Solomon as His son in Shmuel Beit / 2 Samuel 7:14, and He even refers to King David as His firstborn in T'hillim / Psalms 89:28.
So what does it mean in the psalm when it says that "today I (G-d) have begotten you"? Read Shmuel Alef / 1 Samuel 16:13 "And Samuel took the horn of oil, and anointed him (David) in the midst of his brothers. And a spirit of the L-rd passed over David from that day forth. . ."
This was the day on which David was anointed as King of Israel. G-d refers to that day in Thillim / Psalms 2:7 when He says "on this day I have begotten you", since on that day David became the prophet of G-d. After that day David wrote songs and psalms under the Divine inspiration that was born within him and bestowed upon him by G-d.
The use of this phraseology is not unique in the T'nach. Compare the expression in T'hillim / Psalms 2:7 with a similar one in the well-known Song of Moses, in the part where he chides the Israelites, D'varim / Deuteronomy 32:18 "You forgot the [Mighty] Rock Who bore you; you forgot the G-d Who delivered you."
Here G-d is described as both a father and a mother to the Israelites. So, the "added meaning" in Thillim / Psalms 2:7 is that, as the new King of Israel, as the anointed ruler chosen by G-d, David "begotten" on the day of his anointment as king.
Matthew 3:17 does not prove that Jesus was a son of G-d (although all humans are the sons and daughters of G-d) -- and it in no way "fulfills" the line in T'hillim / Psalm 2:1-7.