The sixth claim based on T'hillim / Psalm 22 purports that the psalm prophesies "born the savior."
There is a pattern in these supposed prophetic passages claimed by the list maker. The author is taking any sentence that happens to anyone and then claims it is a messianic prophecy about Jesus.
Has there ever been a human (other than Adam and Chava / Eve) who has not been born?
How is the birth of anyone a prophecy, let alone a prophetic fulfillment?
Line 10 (9 in Christian versions) is about King David. Let's remember that the Christian versions are one number "off" from Jewish versions. Some eliminate the VERY FIRST LINE which says "For the conductor, on the ayeleth hashachar, a song of (about) David." (these include the KJV, 21st Century KJV to name two). Other Christian translations retain the line but do not number it (these include the NIV, CEB and NRSV to name a few).
This psalm is about King David.
By eliminating the first line (or negating its importance by not including it in the numbering system) the translators are misleading their readers that this psalm might be about someone else (Jesus perhaps?).
It is not a messianic prophecy about Jesus.
Line 10 (9 in Christian versions) says "For You drew me from the womb; You made me secure on my mother's breasts."
A baby is born.
That baby later becomes King David.
The very next line (not referenced by the list maker) says "Upon You, I was cast from birth; from my mother's womb You are my G-d." David is saying that G-d selected him to be King from his birth -- being of the tribe of Judah (as prophesied by Jacob in B'reshit / Genesis). David is pleading with G-d to not desert him as he (David) is surrounded by enemies who wish to defeat him.
Where, in any of this, does it speak of the birth of the baby being a savior?
Does the line say anything about that baby being born a savior (let alone "the" savior)?
Yet another false claim by the list maker.
Let's also talk momentarily about the term "savior." What does it mean -- and was Jesus ever a savior?
“Don’t rely on ‘princes’ or on that ‘son of man’ —he has no ‘salvation’! When his spirit departs he will turn back into his dust; on that very day all his schemes will be destroyed!” (T'hillim / Psalm 146:3-4).
The term the Son of Man is used to refer to Jesus 32 times in Matthew,
The term the Son of man is in Mark 15 times,
The term the Son of man is in Luke 26 times.
The term the Son of man is in John 12 times.
In the first three gospels the title is always recorded as having been used by Jesus of himself and never by angel, by man, or by demon. "Just" Jesus as the "son of man."
Yet G-d warns you that the "son of man" has no salvation.
The son of man cannot save you.
But doesn't Jesus Hebrew name mean salvation?
First of all Jesus doesn't have a Hebrew name. The Christian bible was written in Greek, not in Hebrew. If Jesus ever lived no one knows what his Hebrew name might have been. It is impossible that it was the Hebrew name for "salvation."
Because Hebrew nouns are either feminine or masculine. There is no "gender neutral" noun. The Hebrew word for salvation is a FEMININE noun (יְשׁוּעָה - y'shu'AH) . Feminine as in female, girl, woman. . . not a man (let alone a son of man). All we know of Jesus' "name" is what is found in Greek. In Greek the name is Ἰησοῦς / Iesous, which would be יֵֽשׁוּ Yéshu (not יְשׁוּעָה - y'shu'AH a feminine noun or even יֵשׁוּעַ - yeSHU'a, a masculine proper name).
Ἰησοῦς / Iesous does not and can not represent the Hebrew form יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a because translated that word becomes "Jesuas" (not Jesus or Joshua). That name is never used for the Christian "Jesus."
Salvation in the T'nach (bible) has nothing to do with your immortal soul, which does not need "saving." It always refers to being rescued from physical danger. Hence, in this psalm King David is speaking of his life being saved from physical harm (being rescued). Here are just a few examples:
• “Just stand still and you’ll see HaShem’s salvation that He is going to do for your today....” (Sh'mot / Exodus 14:13)
• “HaShem saved Israel from Egypt’s power that day....” (Sh'mot / Exodus 14:30)
• “HaShem set up a savior for Israel—Otniyél ben K'naz, Kalév’s younger brother....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:9)
• “HaShem set up a savior for them—Éhud ben Géra the Bin-y'mini, who had a deformed right hand....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:15)
• “....and he, too, saved Israel....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:31)
• “If You will save Israel through my hand, as You have spoken....” (Shoftim / Judges 6:36)
• “....you didn’t save me from them....and, when I saw that you hadn’t saved me....” (Shoftim / Judges 12:2-3)
• “HaShem saved Israel that day....” (Shmuel 1 / 1 Samuel 14:23)
• “....so David saved the inhabitants of K'ilah....” (Shmuel 1 / 1 Samuel 23:5)
So, Jesus was not a "savior" -- of lives or of souls. The list maker states that the "fulfillment" of this non-prophecy is found in Luke 2:7 which says "and she gave birth to her firstborn, a son. She wrapped him in cloths and placed him in a manger, because there was no guest room available for them." From reading that line the writer is simply saying that Jesus was born in a manger and his mom put clothes on him. Just how many people do you suppose have a similar tale to tell? Even Luke 2:7 makes no claim "born a savior" -- and even if it did it would prove nothing. . .
Whether he was or was not was said to be a savior the T'nach refutes this claim (“Don’t rely on ‘princes’ or on that ‘son of man’ —he has no ‘salvation’! When his spirit departs he will turn back into his dust; on that very day all his schemes will be destroyed!” - T'hillim / Psalm 146:3-4) and line 10 of T'hillim / Psalm 22 does not speak of anyone being born a savior meaning the list maker pulled this one out of thin air -- this is just another easily disproved claim of a "prophecy fulfilled."