The reference to Matthew 28:20 appears to be an error on the part of the list maker. Matthew 28:20 says "and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the age." That has nothing to do with anyone being called Emmanuel (properly transliterated as Immanu'el). Possibly the list maker is making a leap into imagination due to the phrase "I am with you always" since the Hebrew in Y'shayahu / Isaiah 8:8 is עִמָּ֥נוּ אֵֽל׃ / Immanu el (G-d is with us). If so that is a stretch indeed. The Greek (not Hebrew) in Matthew 28:20 is "ἐγὼ μεθ’ ὑμῶν" / egō meth’ hymōn (I am with you). Not G-d is with you, and most certainly not Immanue'l since Matthew is Greek, not Hebrew. "Egō meth’ hymōn does not sound a bit similar to "Immanu'el"! It might interest you to know that Jesus is never called Immanu'el in the Christian bible. Not once. Nope, not even once. Matthew 1:21 predicts that "they" (whoever "they" might be, as "they" are never identified) will call Jesus Immanu'el but the word is never used by anyone in the Christian bible to refer to Jesus. Ever. For arguments sake let's accept the missionary claim (for the moment) that Y'shayahu / Isaiah 8:8's use of Immanu'el (G-d is with us) might be about Jesus. Let's explore the context of chapter 8, and ask a few questions. The first question should be obvious: was Jesus ever named Immanue'l? No, of course not. So why then do missionaries insist that even though Jesus was not named "Jesus" that he was called "Immanuel"? Your guess is as good as mine, because Jesus is NEVER called Immanu'el in the Christian bible. What if someone did call Jesus "Immanu'el" and it just is not mentioned in the Christian bible? This seems highly speculative and unlikely (how does that "prove" Matthew's supposed prophetic fulfillment?) -- but for the sake of argument let us assume that someone, somewhere (in plural since it is "they") did call Jesus "Immanu'el." Does that pass the "smell" test of Jewish child naming let alone the prophecy found inY'shayahu / Isaiah 7:14 that "she" will name the child Immanu'el? The Hebrew of the child being named (called) Immanu'el is found in Y'shayahu / Isaiah 7:14 and B'reshit / Genesis 16:11 -- it is וְקָרָאת שְׁמוֹ v'kara't sh'mo (you (female) shall name him). This naming literally means the name given to a child at a formal naming ceremony. It is a name, not a "reference." Why is the naming of a baby a formal process in Judaism? Because a name is more than a label. Our sages tell us that a name follows us throughout our lives -- it defines us, our character and unique qualities. At the beginning of life we give a name, and at the end of life a "good name" is all we take with us. See Talmud, Brachot 7b). The Arizal (Isaac (ben Solomon) Luria Ashkenazi, 16th century) wrote in Sha’ar HaGilgulim 24b that even the numerical value of a name can indicate the individual’s character and destiny. So the missionary claim that Jesus was "called" (not named) "Immanuel" does not fulfill the prophecy of Y'shayahu / Isaiah 7:14 or Y'shayahu / Isaiah 8:8. The Hebrew is clear that Immanu'el's mother names him (and the Christian bible, book of Matthew, it states that Joseph has a dream (1:21) and an "angel" that tells him to name the baby Jesus, and, in Matthew 1:25, Joseph "he gave him the name Jesus."
Ergo this claimed prophecy, #166, is not fulfilled by Jesus and is false. The term עִמָּנוּ אֵל (Immanu'el) is found three times in Isaiah. It is clearly a name in two places, and not a name in the third.
Just as Y'shayahu / Isaiah 7:14 is speaking of G-d being with King Ahaz in his war of survival against Syria and the northern kingdom of Israel Y'shayahu / Isaiah 8:10 is clearly not a name, but a declaration that "G-d is with us!" and not a personal name. Even the Christian translations have "G-d with us" for the use of עִמָּ֖נוּ אֵֽל in Y'shayahu / Isaiah 8:10.
And so on. . . All of them properly translate עִמָּ֖נוּ אֵֽל in Y'shayahu / Isaiah 8:10 as"G-d IS with us," not "G-d with us." This is very interesting given that Matthew mistranslates it! So, is עִמָּ֥נוּ אֵֽל in Y'shayahu / Isaiah 8:8 a name or a phrase? It is hard to say because the conext of the verse could be read either way. וְהָיָה֙ מֻטּ֣וֹת כְּנָפָ֔יו מְלֹ֥א רֹֽחַב־אַרְצְךָ֖ עִמָּ֥נוּ אֵֽל׃ / and the tips of his wings will fill the breadth of your land, G-d is with us (or "Immanu'el)." Y'shayahu / Isaiah 8:8. It seems likely that עִמָּ֥נוּ אֵֽל is a personal name - as indicated by the Koren Edition translation which has it as one word, although the Stone Edition separates it as two words (as shown in red). The missionary may ask: if Immanu'el is not Jesus, who is it? Uri Yosef of Messiah Truth explores this question in depth in his article "Isaiah and his Sons." In the prophet declares that his sons are signs from G-d "Behold, I and the children whom the L-rd gave me for signs and for tokens in Israel, from the Lord of Hosts, Who dwells on Mount Zion." Y'shayahu / Isaiah 8:18. The names of Isaiah's sons have prophetic meaning. In Y'shayahu / Isaiah 7:3 we are told "And the L-rd said to Isaiah, "Now go out toward Ahaz, you and שְׁאָר יָשׁוּב / Shear-Yashuv your son, to the edge of the conduit of the upper pool, to the road of the washer's field." What does the name שְׁאָר יָשׁוּב / Shear-Yashuv mean? It means "a remnant shall return." In Y'shayahu / Isaiah 10:21 we are told by the prophet Isaiah that "The שְׁאָר יָשׁוּב / remnant shall return, the remnant of Jacob, to the mighty G-d."
The names of Isaiah's sons are prophetic signs. The fulfillment of the prophecy of שְׁאָר יָשׁוּב / Shear-Yashuv is found in Divrei Hayamim Beit / II Chronicles chapters 30 and 31. Similarly the child named עִמָּ֥נוּאֵֽל / Immanu'el (G-d is with us) is a prophecy that G-d will be with King Ahaz while his kingdom is attacked by the two kings he dreads (Pekah and Rezin). This prophecy is fulfilled in M'lachim Beit / 2 Kings 15:29; 16:5-9; Divrei Hayamim I / 1 Chronicles 5:26. King Ahaz sided with Assyria, fighting with Tiglathpileser, against Israel and Syria. Ahaz and the Assyrians won (as Y'shayahu / Isaiah 7 and Y'shayahu / Isaiah 8 prophesied). Rezin and Pekah were conquered and many of their people were carried captive to Assyria (M'lachim Beit / 2 Kings 15:29; 16:5-9; Divrei Hayamim I / 1 Chronicles 5:26). Soon after this Shalmaneser subdued the northern kingdom of Israel. Samaria was taken and destroyed (B.C.E. 722). Isaiah's prophecies that G-d was with King Ahaz were true to it's plain meaning and throughout Ahaz reign, the kingdom of Judah was unmolested by the Assyrian power. Bottom line: Jesus was not named "Immanuel." There was no prophecy that the messiah would be named (or called) Immanuel. The prophecies found in Y'shayahu / Isaiah 7 and Y'shayahu / Isaiah 8 were for a king who lived 700 years before Jesus, to comfort him in the knowledge that he would not be overthrown by the Syrians and the northern kingdom of Israel. Another completely false prophecy by the list maker which is easily discovered by simply reading the bible.
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