This claim, that Jesus was the salvation spoken of in was already made in 216. Isaiah 49:6...He is Salvation for Israel...Luke 2:29-32. Both #216 and #217 reference "It is too light for you to be My servant, to establish the tribes of Jacob and to bring back the besieged of Israel, but I will make you a light of nations, so that My salvation shall be until the end of the earth." Y'shayahu / Isaiah chapter 49:6. Isaiah is speaking of G-d's salvation -- in fact the name יְשַׁעְיָהוּ / Isaiah means "G-d's salvation." There is only one G-d, and the Torah tells us that any "god" we did not know at Sinai is a false god. ". . . .the curse, if you. . .turn away from the way I command you this day, to follow other gods, WHICH YOU DID NOT KNOW." D'varim / Deuteronomy 11: 28 "..."Let us go and worship other gods, which neither you, nor your forefathers have known.." D'varim / Deuteronomy 13:7 The key phrase here is to worship any god that we did not know at Mount Sinai. No Jew at Sinai had ever heard of Jesus. When did "our fathers, present at Sinai, have a spiritual experience with Jesus? Was Jesus "known" to them? Did they pray to Jesus or through Jesus? Of course not! Jesus was unknown to them. Jesus is a false god. G-d alone is the one and only G-d. See also“Hearken to Me, you who know righteousness, a people that has My Torah in their heart, fear not reproach of man, and from their revilings be not dismayed. For, like a garment, the moth shall consume them, and like wool, the worm shall consume them, but My righteousness shall be forever, and My salvation to all generations.” (Y'shayahu / Isaiah 51:7-8). It is also found in Y'shayahu / Isaiah 52, 56 and 60 as well, and T'hillim / Psalms 67 and 98. Salvation = rescuing and is speaking of physical lives. When people turn to G-d and His Torah there will be peace on earth, no more killing, etc. It has nothing to do with the Christian concept that humans need to be "saved" because of some sin in the Garden of Eden (original sin does not exist), or some other thinking that without belief in Jesus a person is damned. These concepts are unbiblical and are heresy in that they minimize G-d and cast aspersions on His creation -- mankind. Acts 15 is not about Jesus. It tells the tale of Jesus' followers, after his death, discussing whether or not gentile followers needed to keep the Jewish mitzvot. Nothing in the passage speaks of G-d's salvation -- the topic is "what do the gentiles have to do if they are followers of Jesus?" The topic is total nonsense from a Jewish perspective. Non-Jews do NOT have to be circumcised. Interesting enough a passage in Acts 15 does mention being saved (a non-biblical concept), but it is not referenced here by the list maker. The verse is "Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses, you cannot be saved" (Acts 15:1). There is no such thing as "being saved." When a person sins it is the responsibility of that person to atone for their own sins and put themselves right with G-d. There is no "hell" so there is nothing to be "saved" from! This concept of needing to be "saved" really shows one of the basic huge differences from most of Chrstianity which views man as a sinner who needs "saving" and Judaism who says man is born with free will and has the ability to do good OR evil. Start with the story of Adam and Chava (Eve) in the Garden of Eden. The Hebrew name for the woman isn't Eve. The name is Chava. What does Chava mean in Hebrew? It means "life" (ever hear the toast l'chaim -- to life!). Read the story. Does G-d curse Adam? Does G-d curse Chava? Read it closely. Nope. G-d curses the serpent and the land -- He does not curse Adam or Chava. There is no such thing as "original sin" and there is nothing we need to be "saved from." We are responsible for our own actions -- good or bad. Christianity NEEDS original sin. Christian theology holds that a sinless J* was part of the heavenly Father's plan from the outset, to redeem mankind. After all, the act of disobedience by Adam and Chava in the Garden of Eden, the Fall of Man, placed the stain of sin on humanity, one that cannot be removed through a person's own actions. This opens the way for Jesus, the perfect sacrificial offering of the future, was born through the impregnation by the Holy Spirit of the virgin, Mary. Jesus was thus born without the stain of Original Sin, since he was conceived of G-d and not through the customary act of copulation by two sinful humans. We also know that G-d didn't immediately punish Adam and Chava and bar them from the Tree of Life because they disobeyed and ate from the Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil, but He gave them an opportunity to repent and tell Him the truth (after they had eaten and could recognize that it was wrong to disobey). Teshuva repenting and turning to G-d. But Adam and then Chava failed to do teshuvah but blamed someone else for their actions. Chava blamed the serpent. Adam blamed Chava. No one said I'm sorry. I did wrong. Forgive me. So was the real sin the eating of the fruit, or the immature finger pointing and refusal to take responsibility that happened after they ate the fruit? The far greater sin is the second one. The whole point is that teshuvah is an essential part of Torah, and thus Torah gives us the opportunity to partake of eternal life (i.e, communion with G-d) Even when we sin but we must take responsibility for our own actions. Yet another claim by the list maker which is not supported at all in the T'nach (bible). Our souls do not need to be saved -- wheneverthe verb to save as used in the T'nach it refers to rescue from an attacker. Normally the usage has to do with engaging in physical combat with whoever is attacking the person being “saved”.
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This is the second of six claims tied to Y'shayahu / Isaiah chapter 49. This chapter is speaking of the prophet Isaiah himself, his role as G-d's spokesman to the Jewish people to reclaim their role as a light to the other nations. The very first line says "Hearken, you islands, to me, and listen closely, you nations, from afar; the L-rd called me from the womb, from the innards of my mother He mentioned my name." Y'shayahu / Isaiah chapter 49:1. The root of the name Isaiah is יש"ע, -- salvation. Isaiah the prophet is saying that he was, from before his birth, set aside by G-d to give prophecies of salvation to the Jewish people, and even to the nations of the earth. Isaiah is G-d's servant,, tasked with bringing the Jewish people back to Him, but by extension Isaiah's message is for all the nations of the world -- so that both Isaiah and the Jewish people are a “light unto the nations” so that G-d’s salvation would reach the ends of the world.. G-d's salvation. Not Jesus. "And He said, "It is too light for you to be My servant, to establish the tribes of Jacob and to bring back the besieged of Israel, but I will make you a light of nations, so that My salvation shall be until the end of the earth." Y'shayahu / Isaiah chapter 49:6. Isaiah. As if the text itself was not clear enough the name יְשַׁעְיָהוּ / Isaiah means "G-d's salvation"! "you" (not someone unborn for another 700 years, aka Jesus). G-d is speaking to Isaiah and does not say "700 years from now Jesus will be born and he will be my servant." Nope. G-d says "It is too light for you to be My servant, to establish the tribes of Jacob and to bring back the besieged of Israel, but I will make you a light of nations, so that My salvation shall be until the end of the earth." Y'shayahu / Isaiah chapter 49:6. The Hebrew word for salvation, יְשׁוּעָה y'shu'ah, is a FEMININE NOUN. Nouns in Hebrew have no gender neutral -- they are either masculine or feminine. In the word is יְשׁוּעָתִ֖י -- יְשׁוּעָה The suffix תי identifies the subject of the verb as first person, singular. Translated it becomes "my salvation." Who is the "my"? G-d. The servants are Isaiah, and by extension the Jewish nation. The salvation of the entire world? G-d. What does salvation even mean, in biblical terms? In the T'nach always refers to our physical lives being saved from danger. Our immortal souls do not need saving. The meaning of יְשׁוּעָה in the Scriptures is very different from the way it is misused in by Christian missionaries. In Hebrew, it simply means being “rescued” from danger—typically by the rescuer engaging in physical combat (fighting) with an assailant who is attacking the person being “saved”. In the T'nach, “saving” is almost always associated with “fighting” or “waging war”.... I refer you to any or all of the following examples: • “Just stand still and you’ll see HaShem’s salvation that He is going to do for your today....” (Sh'mot / Exodus 14:13) • “HaShem saved Israel from Egypt’s power that day....” (Sh'mot / Exodus 14:30) • “HaShem set up a savior for Israel—Otniyél ben K'naz, Kalév’s younger brother....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:9) • “HaShem set up a savior for them—Éhud ben Géra the Bin-y'mini, who had a deformed right hand....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:15) • “....and he, too, saved Israel....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:31) • “If You will save Israel through my hand, as You have spoken....” (Shoftim / Judges 6:36) • “....you didn’t save me from them....and, when I saw that you hadn’t saved me....” (Shoftim / Judges 12:2-3) • “HaShem saved Israel that day....” (Shmuel 1 / 1 Samuel 14:23) • “....so David saved the inhabitants of K'ilah....” (Shmuel 1 / 1 Samuel 23:5) Every time the concept of salvation is mentioned in the T'nach (bible) it always refers to physical lives being rescued from danger. The Christian concept that the soul is damaged and needs saving is not biblical (T'nach). The concept is Christian, not Jewish. Christianity teaches that sin has separated man from G-d, and the consequence of sin is death (Romans 6:23). The Christian bible goes so far as to say that only G-d can remove sin and deliver man from sin’s penalty (hell) (2 Timothy 1:9; Titus 3:5). In the Jewish bible the term "salvation" only refers to being rescued from physical danger. Salvation has nothing to do with our immortal souls. We are not separated from G-d -- indeed He is close to all who call upon Him. In D'varim / Deuteronomy 33:29 Moses said we are “a nation that has been saved by HaShem”) and Yeshayahu / Isaiah 45:17 says the Jewish nation “has been saved by HaShem”, adding that “this is an eternal salvation”). Note that, in both verses, the words used were “has been saved” or "continually being saved" -- but again this is speaking of our physical existence -- not our immortal souls which are perfect and do not need to be saved. Yet again the list maker has lifted a sentence out of context (the passage speaks of Isaiah's role as G-d's messenger to spread the word that G-d is our salvation) and claimed, with zero proof, that it is about Jesus. The "He" in Y'shayahu / Isaiah 43:11 is G-d, not Jesus. G-d alone is our savior. Funny that missionaries overlook the ONLY as it applies to G-d and state that the savior is Jesus! "And now, so said the L-rd, your Creator, O Jacob, and the One Who formed you, O Israel, "Do not fear, for I have redeemed you, and I called by your name, you are Mine. . . "You are My witnesses," says the L-rd, "and My servant whom I chose," in order that you know and believe Me, and understand that I am He; before Me no god was formed and after Me none shall be. I, I am the L-rd, and besides Me there is no Savior." Y'shayahu / Isaiah 43:1 - 11. G-d, through the prophet Isaiah, is saying that Israel (the Jewish people) are His servant, His witnesses. . . He claims us as His and states that there is no other god but He (including Jesus). How can we know without a doubt that G-d is speaking to and about the Jewish people? Read the chapter. "So said the L-rd, your Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel, "Because of you, I sent [you] to Babylon, and I lowered, them all with oars, and Chaldees in the ships of their rejoicing." Y'shayahu / Isaiah 43:14. The Jewish people were exiled to Babylon. An early paraphrased translation of Isaiah (Targum Yonaton) has "Because of your sins I exiled you to Babylon." The prophecy refers to the nation as a whole.) G-d is the Savior of Israel, the Jewish people. He alone is our savior. I, I am the L-rd, and besides Me there is no Savior." Y'shayahu / Isaiah 43:11. The Jewish bible tells us that we are not to pray to any "god" our fathers did not know (at Sinai). This is the absolute death knell to the missionary claim that Jesus IS G-d. If we did not "know" Jesus at Sinai he is a false god. Read D’varim 11 and D’varim 13 (Deuteronomy): ". . . .the curse, if you. . .turn away from the way I command you this day, to follow other gods, WHICH YOU DID NOT KNOW." D'varim / Deuteronomy 11: 28 "[This is what you must do] if your blood brother, your son, your daughter, your bosom wife, or your closest friend secretly tries to act as a missionary among you, and says, 'Let us go worship a new god. LET US HAVE A SPIRITUAL EXPERIENCE PREVIOUSLY UNKNOWN BY YOU OR YOUR FATHER.' 13:8 [He may be enticing you with] the gods of the nations around you, far or near, or those that are found at one end of the world or another. 13:9 Do not agree with him, and do not listen to him." D'varim / Deuteronomy 13:7 Not Jesus. Acts 4:12 may say "And there is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among people by which we must be saved [for G-d has provided the world no alternative for salvation]." but G-d and the T'nach prove this is a lie. The very passage the list maker presents as a prophecy about Jesus (which is really about G-d alone) proves that Acts 4:12 is a lie. I, I am the L-rd, and besides Me there is no Savior." Y'shayahu / Isaiah 43:1 - 11. Many Christians are taught that only Jesus can save their souls. They believe that Jesus had to die to save them. In this chapter G-d disagrees saying "I, yea I erase your transgressions for My sake, and your sins I will not remember." Y'shayahu / Isaiah 43:25. No blood. No human sacrifice of Jesus. G-d, G-d alone can erase sins and it does not require Jesus to do it. In D'varim / Deuteronomy 33:29 Moses said we are “a nation that has been saved by HaShem” and Y'shayahu / Isaiah 45:17 says the Jewish nation “has been saved by HaShem”, adding that “this is an eternal salvation”). Note that, in both verses, the words used were “has been saved” or "continually being saved." So we don't NEED Jesus to save us -- G-d has saved / is saving us continually, B"H! Y'shayahu / Isaiah 42 is about G-d speaking of his blind and deaf servant -- the Jewish nation. There is no mention of salvation -- that is an addition by the list maker. The light to the nations is the Jewish people -- a nation of priests designated by G-d to bring knowledge of Him to them. . . What of the light being salvation? In the T'nach (Jewish bible) the term salvation always refers to the rescue of the physical lives of people - it has no reference at all to the "salvation of the eternal soul" as most Christians would perceive it. I refer you to any or all of the following examples: • “Just stand still and you’ll see HaShem’s salvation that He is going to do for your today....” (Sh'mot / Exodus 14:13) • “HaShem saved Israel from Egypt’s power that day....” (Sh'mot / Exodus 14:30) • “HaShem set up a savior for Israel—Otniyél ben K'naz, Kalév’s younger brother....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:9) • “HaShem set up a savior for them—Éhud ben Géra the Bin-y'mini, who had a deformed right hand....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:15) • “....and he, too, saved Israel....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:31) • “If You will save Israel through my hand, as You have spoken....” (Shoftim / Judges 6:36) • “....you didn’t save me from them....and, when I saw that you hadn’t saved me....” (Shoftim / Judges 12:2-3) • “HaShem saved Israel that day....” (Shmuel 1 / 1 Samuel 14:23) • “....so David saved the inhabitants of K'ilah....” (Shmuel 1 / 1 Samuel 23:5) • “HaShem is my Light and my Salvation-- Whom should I fear? HaShem is the fortress of my Life-- Whom should I dread? If evil men approach me To devour my flesh-- [When] my adversaries and my enemies [attacked] me-- Wow! They stumbled and fell! If an army encamps against me My heart will not be afraid; If war breaks out against me-- On this [assurance] I can rely!” (T'hillim / Psalm 27:1-3) The above verses (and these are only a selection—there are many, many more) demonstrate how the verb save and nouns savior, salvation are used in the T'nach, which is nothing like the way christians use them....The list maker continues to reference Y'shayahu / Isaiah 42 as being prophetic about Jesus. Yet the chapter is clear that the Jewish people are G-d's servant in this chapter -- a servant who is described as often being blind and deaf to G-d's message (certainly not a description most Christians would ascribe to Jesus!). Y'shayahu / Isaiah 42:5 - 6 "So said G-d the L-rd, the Creator of the heavens and the One Who stretched them out, Who spread out the earth and what springs forth from it, Who gave a soul to the people upon it and a spirit to those who walk thereon. I am the L-rd; I called you with righteousness and I will strengthen your hand; and I formed you, and I made you a covenant for the people, for a light to nations." The concept of the servant as a light to the nations is repeated "And He said, "It is too light for you to be My servant, to establish the tribes of Jacob and to bring back the besieged of Israel, but I will make you a light of nations, so that My salvation shall be until the end of the earth."" Y'shayahu / Isaiah 49:6.
Jesus was not the servant who established the tribes of Jacob or returned the besieged of Israel -- or the light to the nations. This might fit Isaiah himself, or the real messiah or even the Jewish nation -- but it does not fit Jesus. There is another reference to examine. "And nations shall go by your light and kings by the brilliance of your shine." Y'shayahu / Isaiah 6:3. Isaiah 60 is definitely speaking of the Jewish people. Isaiah tells Jerusalem to rise, for their light has come. Darkness will cover the Earth, but they alone will have light. The other nations will follow their light to G-d. The Jews have been told many times that they are a nation of priests, a light to the other nations. "And you shall be to Me a kingdom of princes and a holy nation.' These are the words that you shall speak to the children of Israel."" Sh'mot / Exodus 19:6 and "Hearken to Me, My people, and My nation, bend your ears to Me, when Torah shall emanate from Me, and My judgment [shall be] for the light of the peoples, I will give [them] rest." Y'shayahu / Isaiah 51:4. The one G-d called is the servant who is so often blind and deaf, but is still His servant -- the Jewish nation or possibly the prophet Isaiah himself -- but it does not apply to Jesus. Unsure? Y'shayahu / Isaiah 42:19 - 20. says "Who is blind but My servant, and deaf as My messenger whom I will send? He who was blind is as the one who received his payment, and he who was blind is as the servant of the L-rd. There is much to see but you do not observe, to open the ears but no one listens." Was Jesus deaf to G-d? Was Jesus blind to G-d? Answering "no" to those two questions means you reject Jesus as the subject of this chapter. And what of being a light to the nations (goyim / gentiles)? Time and again Jesus states that he did not come for the gentiles, but for the Jews. Read Matthew 10:5-6 "“Go nowhere among the Gentiles and enter no town of the Samaritans, but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel." and Matthew 15:24 "“I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel.” In his ministry Jesus did not reach out to the gentiles. He did help a few here or there -- but he did not have a ministry to the gentile world and never left Israel (Judah and Galilee) to preach in the gentile world. There is nothing in Y'shayahu / Isaiah 42:5 - 6 that Jesus fulfilled. The T'nach (Jewish bible) is replete with passages stating that G-d will save various people (or passages with people asking G-d to save them). Not one of them says the messiah will come and save anyone. The passage says that G-d will save -- let's read Y'shayahu / Isaiah 35:4: "Say to the hasty of heart, "Be strong, do not fear; behold our G-d, [with] vengeance He shall come, the recompense of G-d, that shall come and save you." Yet again the list maker presents a statement about G-d and states (with no support whatsoever) that it is a prophecy about Jesus. It is ironic that this chapter is actually describing the fact that Jerusalem will rejoice over the downfall of אֱדוֹם / Edom -- and in Judaism אֱדוֹם / Edom is defined as Christianity. Once the Roman empire became the Christian empire the identity of אֱדוֹם / Edom was transferred to the Christians. What of Matthew 1:21? The passage says "She will give birth to a son, and you are to give him the name Jesus,[a] because he will save his people from their sins.” Yet G-d warns you that the "son of man" has no salvation. The son of many cannot save you. “Don’t rely on ‘princes’ or on that ‘son of man’ —he has no ‘salvation’! When his spirit departs he will turn back into his dust; on that very day all his schemes will be destroyed!” (T'hillim / Psalm 146:3-4). The term the Son of man is used to refer to Jesus 32 times in Matthew, The term the Son of man is in Mark 15 times, The term the Son of man is in Luke 26 times. The term the Son of man is in John 12 times. This brings up a very important point: no one can save you from your sins -- and the term "saved" in the T'nach (bible) always refers to people's lives being saved. The immortal soul is perfect and does not need to be saved. No one can die for the sins of another, and human sacrifice is strictly forbidden. Thus the Torah rejects the assertion of the anonymous author of Matthew: "Fathers shall not be put to death because of sons, nor shall sons be put to death because of fathers; each man shall be put to death for his own transgression." D'varim / Deuteronomy 24:16. Jesus died for your sins ≠ Each man must be put to death for his own sins. Christianity teaches the opposite of the teachings of the bible. The Torah tells us that if someone comes along and changes the teachings of the bible that he is a false prophet -- thus the person who wrote Matthew was in error. It is a false teaching. The Christian bible also erroneously teaches that sin has separated man from G-d, and further that the consequence of sin is death (Romans 6:23). The Christian bible goes so far as to say that only G-d can remove sin and deliver man from sin’s penalty (hell) (2 Timothy 1:9; Titus 3:5). The T'nach (Jewish bible) utterly rejects these ideas. Man is not separated from G-d. "By loving kindness and truth iniquity is atoned for..." (Mishlei / Proverbs 16:6) and "If you return to G-d you will be restored; if you remove unrighteousness far from your tent...then you will delight in G-d..." (Iyov / Job 22:23-27). Only the one who sins can atone for his own sins -- and there is no hell. G-d tells Cain as much in the first book of the bible: "sin is crouching at the door. It lusts after you, but you can dominate it.'" B'reshit / Genesis 4:7. What of salvation? Don't we need to be "saved"? Nope. No such concept in the T'nach (Jewish bible). In the Jewish bible the term "salvation" only refers to being rescued from physical danger. Salvation has nothing to do with our immortal souls. We are not separated from G-d -- indeed He is close to all who call upon Him. In D'varim / Deuteronomy 33:29 Moses said we are “a nation that has been saved by HaShem”) and Yeshayahu / Isaiah 45:17 says the Jewish nation “has been saved by HaShem”, adding that “this is an eternal salvation”). Note that, in both verses, the words used were “has been saved” or "continually being saved" -- but again this is speaking of our physical existence -- not our immortal souls which are perfect and do not need to be saved. The Hebrew word for salvation, יְשׁוּעָה y'shu'ah, is a FEMININE NOUN. The meaning of יְשׁוּעָה in the Scriptures is very different from the way it is misused in by Christian missionaries. In Hebrew, it simply means being “rescued” from danger—typically by the rescuer engaging in physical combat (fighting) with an assailant who is attacking the person being “saved”. In the T'nach, “saving” is almost always associated with “fighting” or “waging war”.... I refer you to any or all of the following examples: • “Just stand still and you’ll see HaShem’s salvation that He is going to do for your today....” (Sh'mot / Exodus 14:13) • “HaShem saved Israel from Egypt’s power that day....” (Sh'mot / Exodus 14:30) • “HaShem set up a savior for Israel—Otniyél ben K'naz, Kalév’s younger brother....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:9) • “HaShem set up a savior for them—Éhud ben Géra the Bin-y'mini, who had a deformed right hand....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:15) • “....and he, too, saved Israel....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:31) • “If You will save Israel through my hand, as You have spoken....” (Shoftim / Judges 6:36) • “....you didn’t save me from them....and, when I saw that you hadn’t saved me....” (Shoftim / Judges 12:2-3) • “HaShem saved Israel that day....” (Shmuel 1 / 1 Samuel 14:23) • “....so David saved the inhabitants of K'ilah....” (Shmuel 1 / 1 Samuel 23:5) • “HaShem is my Light and my Salvation-- Whom should I fear? HaShem is the fortress of my Life-- Whom should I dread? If evil men approach me To devour my flesh-- [When] my adversaries and my enemies [attacked] me-- Wow! They stumbled and fell! If an army encamps against me My heart will not be afraid; If war breaks out against me-- On this [assurance] I can rely!” (T'hillim / Psalm 27:1-3) The above verses (and these are only a selection—there are many, many more) demonstrate how the Hebrew for "saved" and even words for savior and salvation have nothing to do with the soul needing to be saved -- the Christian concept of "salvation" is totally foreign to the bible itself! Thus Matthew 1:21 is rejected by the Torah, and Isaiah 35 does not in any way "prove" Matthew 21 -- quite the opposite is true. No one is called “Yeshua” in Y'shayahu / Isaiah 12:2. Neither does it say anyone WILL be called "Yeshua" (or Jesus, or "salvation"). Matthew 1:21 does not say that Jesus will be called Jesus, or Yeshua either. It was written in Greek and it says that he'll be named Ἰησοῦς / Iēsous. The letter "j" did not appear until the 16th century of the common era -- ergo "Jesus" is a fairly modern made up name for the person known in the Christian bible as Ἰησοῦς / Iēsous. Hebrew nouns are either feminine or masculine. The Hebrew word for "salvation" is feminine. Not masculine. Let me repeat that. The Hebrew word for salvation is יְשׁוּעָה y'shu'ah -- and is feminine -- ergo this claim that Jesus would be called "salvation" is impossible unless Jesus were a girl. There was a Hebrew name which is similar to יְשׁוּעָה y'shu'ah, and that is the name יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a (masculine). The word for salvation, יְשׁוּעָה y'shu'ah, and the name יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a are spelled differently. Notice not only the heh (ה) at the end of the word for salvation, but notice to that the Masoretic symbols (cantillation) representing vowels (Hebrew is spelled without vowels) are DIFFERENT as well. Is it likely that Jesus' Hebrew name would have been יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a (masculine name)? Not very likely at all. Indeed it is very unlikely to have been his name based on what we DO know. All the writings about Jesus were in Greek. There is no known Hebrew name for him. So all the modern "Hebrew Christians" who insist on calling Jesus "Yeshua" are simply making up a name based on nothing really. Based on, what, the HOPE that his name meant salvation? As already pointed out the word for salvation is feminine! Ἰησοῦς / Iesous (the Greek name given for Jesus in all the early papyri) would equate to the Aramaic יֵֽשׁוּ / Yéshu. It does not and cannot represent the Hebrew form יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a because Ἰησοῦς / Iesous would transliterate into "Jesuas" (not Jesus). Have you ever seen any Christians call Jesus “Jesuas”? Ἰησοῦς / Iésous is a mistranslation of the name Y'hōshū'a / Joshua. The transliteration of Y'hōshū'a should be Ιοσοα (Iosoa) or Ιοσοας (Iosoas), Ιοσαυα (Iosaua), or Ιοσα (Iosa), but the not-really Septuagint translation of יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ / Y'hōshū'a (Joshua) is spelt Ἰησοῦς (“Iēsous”). The letter “-a” (ע / 'ayin) at the end of יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ / Y'hōshū'a (Joshua) is not represented in the Greek translation in the "not-really Septuagint." The ע / 'ayin should be represented in a Greek translation -- because the ע / 'ayin is a part of the word’s root (Hebrew words are based on root words). Not only are they missing the ע 'ayin ("-a") there is another issue with the translation. The various Hebrew names that are similar (meaning those names that begin the letters יְהוֹ־ (“Y'ho–”) in Hebrew) are all translated Ιω– (“Io–”). But the translators did not translate יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ / Y'hōshū'a (Joshua) with Ιω– (“Io–”). Why? Why is it the only name begining with יְהוֹ־ (“Y'ho–”) in Hebrew that begins Ἰη-- (“Iē") and not Ιω– (“Io–”) is יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ Y'hoshu'a (Joshua / Jesus) Ἰησοῦς (“Iēsous”)? Is it possible that the translators translated the other names properly, but somehow when it came to יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ / Y'hōshū'a (Joshua) they suddenly made a mistake? Check for yourself. Examine the fourteen Hebrew names in the T'nach that begin with the letters יְהוֹ־ (“Y'ho–”) in Hebrew, and then compare them to the transliterations of these names in the not really-septuagint. Every single of those fourteen names which were translated into Greek begins with Ιω– (“Io–”) in all of cases EXCEPT for Ἰησοῦς / Iésous / יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ Y'hoshu'a / Joshua. יְהוֹאָחָז Y'ho'aḥaz is spelt Ιωαχας (“Ioakhas”), יְהוֹאָשׁ Y'ho'ash is spelt Ιωας (“Ioas”), יְהוֹזָבָד Y'hozavad is spelt Ιωζαβεδ (“Iozabed”), יְהוֹיָכִין Y'hoyachin is spelt Ιωακιμ (“Ioakim”) [although this is actually an error], יְהוֹיָקִים Y'hoyachin is also spelt Ιωακιμ (“Ioakim”), יְהוֹנָדָב Y'honadav is spelt Ιωναδαβ (“Ioanadab”), יְהוֹנָתָן Y'honatan is spelt Ιωναθαν (“Ioanathan”), יְהוֹעַדִּין Y'ho'addin is spelt Ιωαδιν (“Ioadin”), יְהוֹצָדָק Y'hotzadak is spelt Ιωσαδακ (“Iosadak”), יְהוֹרָם Y'horam is spelt Ιωραμ (“Ioram”), יְהוֹשֶֽׁבַע Y'hosheva is spelt Ιωσαβεε (“Iosabee”), יְהוֹשַׁבְעַת Y'hoshav'at is spelt Ιωσαβεθ (“Iosabeth”), and יְהוֹשָׁפָט Y'hoshafat is spelt Ιωσαφατ (“Iosaphat”). All fourteen begin with יְהוֹ־ (“Y'ho–”) in Hebrew -- and all are all translated Ιω– (“Io–”). BUT יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ Y'hoshu'a is spelt Ἰησοῦς (“Iēsous”). This seems to be less an error (since the other fourteen names were translated correctly) than to have been a deliberate choice by the translator(s) to make it look as though the spelling of the transliteration of יְהוֹשֻֽׁעַ Y'hoshu'a into Greek has been altered to make it match the way יֵֽשׁוּ Yéshu (“Jesus”) is spelt in the Christian bible. It looks like whoever translated Y'hōshū'a into the Greek doctored the translation to make it "fit" יֵֽשׁוּ Yéshu (“Jesus”) because the Greek in the translations is not the correct translation of the Hebrew into the Greek. Just another false claim by people apparently ignorant of basic Hebrew, and another claimed "prophecy" (Jesus to be named Jesus or "salvation") is patently false. What of Y'shayahu / Isaiah 12:2? Does it say anything about the messiah being named "salvation"? Nope. "Here is the G-d of my salvation, I shall trust and not fear; for the strength and praise of the Eternal the L-rd was my salvation." Salvation in the T'nach (Jewish bible) always refers to G-d saving our physical lives. Our immortal souls are perfect and do not need "saving." In Y'shayahu / Isaiah 12 Isaiah is telling us that when we Jews see the other nations humbled, we will thank G-d for allowing us to survive, because we know that we are far from perfect and have done much to anger Him. But we know that He loves us and we trust in Him and do not fear. We joyfully draw water from the well of salvation (this verse comprising the song quoted in the title of this synopsis) and we thank G-d, publicizing His great deeds. Sing to G-d for all that He has done for us! The sixth claim based on T'hillim / Psalm 22 purports that the psalm prophesies "born the savior." There is a pattern in these supposed prophetic passages claimed by the list maker. The author is taking any sentence that happens to anyone and then claims it is a messianic prophecy about Jesus. Has there ever been a human (other than Adam and Chava / Eve) who has not been born? How is the birth of anyone a prophecy, let alone a prophetic fulfillment? Line 10 (9 in Christian versions) is about King David. Let's remember that the Christian versions are one number "off" from Jewish versions. Some eliminate the VERY FIRST LINE which says "For the conductor, on the ayeleth hashachar, a song of (about) David." (these include the KJV, 21st Century KJV to name two). Other Christian translations retain the line but do not number it (these include the NIV, CEB and NRSV to name a few). This psalm is about King David. By eliminating the first line (or negating its importance by not including it in the numbering system) the translators are misleading their readers that this psalm might be about someone else (Jesus perhaps?). It is not a messianic prophecy about Jesus. Line 10 (9 in Christian versions) says "For You drew me from the womb; You made me secure on my mother's breasts." A baby is born. That baby later becomes King David. The very next line (not referenced by the list maker) says "Upon You, I was cast from birth; from my mother's womb You are my G-d." David is saying that G-d selected him to be King from his birth -- being of the tribe of Judah (as prophesied by Jacob in B'reshit / Genesis). David is pleading with G-d to not desert him as he (David) is surrounded by enemies who wish to defeat him. Where, in any of this, does it speak of the birth of the baby being a savior? Does the line say anything about that baby being born a savior (let alone "the" savior)? Nope. Yet another false claim by the list maker. Let's also talk momentarily about the term "savior." What does it mean -- and was Jesus ever a savior? “Don’t rely on ‘princes’ or on that ‘son of man’ —he has no ‘salvation’! When his spirit departs he will turn back into his dust; on that very day all his schemes will be destroyed!” (T'hillim / Psalm 146:3-4). The term the Son of Man is used to refer to Jesus 32 times in Matthew, The term the Son of man is in Mark 15 times, The term the Son of man is in Luke 26 times. The term the Son of man is in John 12 times. In the first three gospels the title is always recorded as having been used by Jesus of himself and never by angel, by man, or by demon. "Just" Jesus as the "son of man." Yet G-d warns you that the "son of man" has no salvation. The son of man cannot save you. But doesn't Jesus Hebrew name mean salvation? First of all Jesus doesn't have a Hebrew name. The Christian bible was written in Greek, not in Hebrew. If Jesus ever lived no one knows what his Hebrew name might have been. It is impossible that it was the Hebrew name for "salvation." Why? Because Hebrew nouns are either feminine or masculine. There is no "gender neutral" noun. The Hebrew word for salvation is a FEMININE noun (יְשׁוּעָה - y'shu'AH) . Feminine as in female, girl, woman. . . not a man (let alone a son of man). All we know of Jesus' "name" is what is found in Greek. In Greek the name is Ἰησοῦς / Iesous, which would be יֵֽשׁוּ Yéshu (not יְשׁוּעָה - y'shu'AH a feminine noun or even יֵשׁוּעַ - yeSHU'a, a masculine proper name). Ἰησοῦς / Iesous does not and can not represent the Hebrew form יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a because translated that word becomes "Jesuas" (not Jesus or Joshua). That name is never used for the Christian "Jesus." Salvation in the T'nach (bible) has nothing to do with your immortal soul, which does not need "saving." It always refers to being rescued from physical danger. Hence, in this psalm King David is speaking of his life being saved from physical harm (being rescued). Here are just a few examples: • “Just stand still and you’ll see HaShem’s salvation that He is going to do for your today....” (Sh'mot / Exodus 14:13) • “HaShem saved Israel from Egypt’s power that day....” (Sh'mot / Exodus 14:30) • “HaShem set up a savior for Israel—Otniyél ben K'naz, Kalév’s younger brother....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:9) • “HaShem set up a savior for them—Éhud ben Géra the Bin-y'mini, who had a deformed right hand....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:15) • “....and he, too, saved Israel....” (Shoftim / Judges 3:31) • “If You will save Israel through my hand, as You have spoken....” (Shoftim / Judges 6:36) • “....you didn’t save me from them....and, when I saw that you hadn’t saved me....” (Shoftim / Judges 12:2-3) • “HaShem saved Israel that day....” (Shmuel 1 / 1 Samuel 14:23) • “....so David saved the inhabitants of K'ilah....” (Shmuel 1 / 1 Samuel 23:5) So, Jesus was not a "savior" -- of lives or of souls. The list maker states that the "fulfillment" of this non-prophecy is found in Luke 2:7 which says "and she gave birth to her firstborn, a son. She wrapped him in cloths and placed him in a manger, because there was no guest room available for them." From reading that line the writer is simply saying that Jesus was born in a manger and his mom put clothes on him. Just how many people do you suppose have a similar tale to tell? Even Luke 2:7 makes no claim "born a savior" -- and even if it did it would prove nothing. . . Whether he was or was not was said to be a savior the T'nach refutes this claim (“Don’t rely on ‘princes’ or on that ‘son of man’ —he has no ‘salvation’! When his spirit departs he will turn back into his dust; on that very day all his schemes will be destroyed!” - T'hillim / Psalm 146:3-4) and line 10 of T'hillim / Psalm 22 does not speak of anyone being born a savior meaning the list maker pulled this one out of thin air -- this is just another easily disproved claim of a "prophecy fulfilled." Acts 2:31 speaks of Jesus' dying, being resurrected and his body not rotting in a grave. The list maker tries to tie this to T'hillim / Psalm 16:10 which has nothing to do with the messiah, him dying and resurrecting -- and his body not rotting. T'hillim / Psalm 16-10 is translated as: "For You shall not forsake my life (being alive / the living part of the soul) to the grave; You shall not allow Your pious one to see the pit." Most missionaries do not know Hebrew (or they rely on poor tools such as the Strong Concordance) and when they see an English translation it will say "my soul" and not "my life." Even most Jewish translations say "my soul," but educated Jews realize that the Hebrew is not speaking of the immortal soul at all. The Hebrew word in question is is נַפְשִׁ֣י / (nafSHI). נַפְשִׁ֣י / (nafSHI) is a form of נֶפֶש / nefesh -- a word which is speaking of the part of the soul attached to a living body which keeps the body alive through blood coursing through its veins. Animals and humans have a נֶפֶש / nefesh (נַפְשִׁ֣י / (nafSHI) means "my" soul). . . Nefesh is the lowest level of consciousness, is awareness of the physical body and the physical world. Let me repeat: this is not the immortal soul. Animals do not have immortal souls. From "Ask the Rabbi" at OHR: "The nefesh is the spiritual existence which resides in the body and keeps the physical metabolism working and the person alive. "The ruach is a connection between the neshama and the nefesh. It is the cause of feelings and personal qualities. "The neshama is the spiritual existence which pulls the man towards G-d, to the performance of good deeds, to be pious and humble and to seek knowledge and achievement in spiritual fields. It resides around the head." Thus T'hillim / Psalm 16 is not speaking of Jesus' (or King David's) immortal soul not rotting in a grave. The Hebrew does not speak of the immortal soul in this passage. It simply says that David is grateful that he is alive -- PHYSICALLY alive. This concept of more than one "soul" may be knew to some of my readers, so let me repeat that there are three different terms that people confuse when it comes to translation: רוּחַ ru'ah, נְשָׁמָה n'shamah and נֶפֶשׁ nefesh. רוּחַ ru'ah is a "spirit", also translated as "wind." G-d breathed a spirit into man (B'reshit / Genesis 2:7). נְשָׁמָה n'shamah is a the word most people think of when they hear the English word "soul." It means the immortal soul -- the one that lives on after death, and defines who we are as people. נֶפֶשׁ nefesh, confusingly, is also translated as a "soul" -- but this word means that which keeps the body alive (the blood coursing through your veins). Both animals and humans have a נֶפֶשׁ nefesh. T'hillim / Psalm 16:10 (and many other psalms) are speaking of the נֶפֶשׁ nefesh -- the living human being. It has nothing to do with a person who dies (the נֶפֶשׁ nefesh would then die and this passage would not be applicable). Thus the idea that one can relate this psalm to Jesus dying, being resurrected and his body not rotting to T'hillim / Psalm 16:10 does not "match" the Hebrew word in question. The context of this psalm (per Rashi) is that David has sinned with the daughter of Sheva (Bat Sheva) and is grateful that G-d did not punish him with death. "because I am confident that You will not forsake my soul to the grave. Since, concerning the iniquity of a grave transgression which I committed, You sent me the tidings (in II Sam. 12:13): “Also the L-rd has removed your sin,” certainly from now on You will not forsake me [to cause me] to turn away from You." So another so-called prophecy about Jesus bites the dust. The numbering of the posts has been modified -- early posts sometimes put more than one supposed prophecy in a post and that has thrown the numbering off from the original list. I am going to "match" the posts going forward to the numbering of the missionary's list. I have not skipped any of the supposed 365 "prophecies" -- just fixed the numbering. |
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