This is the FOURTH time the list maker has claimed this prophecy. The other three are: 7. Gen. 14:18...A priest after Melchizedek...Heb. 6:20 8. Gen. 14:18........A King also........Heb. 7:2 9. Gen. 14:18...The Last Supper foreshadowed...Mt. 26:26-29 Does this mean the list is really 362 prophecies? The point being that as we've discussed 145 claims to date we can see that many are repeated and all are either mistranslations, misquotes, outright lies (there is nothing in the T'nach that equates to the claim) and out of context. The subject of Jesus as a priest like Melchizedek is a claim found in the Christian bible so we cannot blame the claim on the list maker, although using it four times is definitely the fault of the list maker. Hebrews 6:20 says "He has become a high priest forever, in the order of Melchizedek."
Because this passage begins with a vav -- וּמַלְכִּי־צֶ֙דֶק֙ it means "AND a king of righteousness." That is "it." Most Christian translations do not translate the Hebrew into the English "and a king of righteousness." Instead they transliterate it (spell in English the Hebrew) which misleads readers into thinking it is a name (Melchizedek). Some Jewish translations also transliterate it, which just goes to prove that all translations have errors in them. Just remember that translators are human and they are also trying to sell books -- so at times translations of the bible will choose the familiar translation, whether it is wrong or right. The 1985 JPS translation of T'hillim / Psalm 110:4 has "The L-rd has sworn, and He will not relent, you are a priest forever, a rightful king (מַלְכִּי־צֶ֙דֶק֙) by my decree." The Rashi Ketuvim by Rabbi Shraga Silver intersperses Rashi's commentary with his translation. This takes the approach that G-d is speaking to King David about Abraham -- thus the psalm is about Abraham and not King David. In his translation the Rabbi presents for T'hillim / Psalm 110:4 "The L-rd has sword (Genesis 15:1: "Do not fear, Avram, etc."), and He shall not repent (of the good that He has foretold for you, (Avram fearing punishment because of all those he had killed in the war). You are a Cohain forever (i.e., from you will now issue the priesthood and royalty that had been accorded Sh'chem, by word (viz. Genesis 14:19-20) of Malkitzedek (Sh'chem, viz. Rashi, B'reshit / Genesis 14:18.)." In this interpretation the Rabbi is stating that the various Jewish tribes descended from Abraham -- including the priestly tribe (Levi) and the kingly tribe (Judah). Rashi mentions the King of Salem who is called a a rightful king (מַלְכִּי־צֶ֙דֶק֙) in B'reshit / Genesis 14:18. The King of Salem is not identified in the Torah, but we know from our tradition that he was Shem, one of the three sons of Noah and the ancestor to Abraham. At any rate, Jesus was never a king, righteous or otherwise. We do know that the first mention of a a rightful king (מַלְכִּי־צֶ֙דֶק֙) in the T'nach was the King of Salem and the second time that term is used it is used in T'hillim / Psalm 110:4. It is not a name. Jesus was never a king. Jesus was also never a priest. Where does the idea come from that Jesus could have been a priest, or that the person mentioned in T'hillim / Psalm 110:4 is a priest? From ignornace. You see, while the King of Salem in B'reshit / Genesis 14:18 is described as a priest this person is not Jewish. Think chronologically -- this man lived in the time of Abraham, long before Isaac or Jacob, and long, long before Moses. Abraham lived around 1812 BCE and Moses led the Exodus in 1312 BCE -- some 500 years later. G-d gave the eternal Jewish priesthood to Moses' brother, Aaron. Thus the King of Salem in B'reshit / Genesis 14:18 was a king and priest long before there was a Jewish kingdom, let alone a Jewish king or a Jewish priest. Hebrews 7 claims that the Jewish priesthood of Aaron is done away with. It says "why was there still need for another priest to come, one in the order of Melchizedek,not in the order of Aaron? 12 For when the priesthood is changed, the law must be changed also." Hebrews 7:11. G-d tells the Jews that the Aaronic priesthood is ETERNAL and forever -- how can Hebrews come along and say that some earlier, non-Jewish priesthood can replace it? Who has the authority to ignore what G-d Himself has said? "G-d spoke to Moses saying. . . have Aaron put on the sacred vestments, and anoint him, thus sanctifying him as a priest to Me.. . . Bring forth Aaron's sons. . . anoint them, just as you anointed their father, so that they will be priests to Me. It will be done so that their anointing will make them an eternal [hereditary] priesthood for all generations.." Sh'mot / Exodus 40:1-15. The author of Hebrews 7 lied -- or G-d lied. You choose. I choose to believe G-d over some anonymous author of Hebrews 7. G-d tells us time and again that the Aaronic priesthood is ETERNAL. "You shall thus install Aaron and his sons [as priests, and this procedure] shall remain a law for all time." Sh'mot / Exodus 29:9. "'Pinchas (a son of Eleazar and grandson of Aaron the priest). . . I have given him My covenant of peace. . . . This shall imply a covenant of eternal priesthood to him and his descendants after him." Bamidbar / Numbers 25:11-13. Jewish priests even today are descended from Aaron, Moses' brother. Knowing that the priesthood eternally belongs to the descendants of Aaron, and that if Jesus were a "priest" after Melchizedek he was not a Jewish king or priest (and Jesus is supposedly the Jewish messiah so taking him outside of his Jewishness makes zero sense) then is T'hillim / Psalm 110:4 saying that the king of righteousness is a priest? That is not possible. (Not to confuse you too much, but historically the Hasmoneans were from the priestly tribe of Levi and became rulers -- they called themselves kings, but they had no biblical right to that claim and the T'nach makes it clear that the messiah must be of the tribe of Judah, through the lines of Kings David and Solomon). Back to T'hillim / Psalm 110:4. The word being translated as "priest" is the Hebrew word כֹהֵן (kohein). Although כֹהֵן (kohein) is often translated as "priest" it is closer in meaning to a minister -- and is used in the T'nach to speak of government ministers (rulers):
The term כֹהֵן (kohein) is also used to speak of a religious minister (such as Aaron's sons who have the eternal priesthood, but also to refer to religious acts by other important people who are not priests). Bottom line: is not speaking about Jesus who was neither a Jewish king or a Jewish priest (and you cannot be both). T'hillim / Psalm 110:4 may be about King David himself -- and saying that David was a king of righteousness as well as a minister (government minister / religious minister) but NOT a priest, or it may be (as Rashi thought) about Abraham, David's ancestor. Terah, Abraham's father, was the chief officer or minister of the first king mentioned in the Torah, the mighty King Nimrod of Babylon (also known by its former name, Shinear, and the land of the Chaldees), so the context of calling Abraham the same thing (a righteous king and a chief minister) would make sense. It does not make sense to claim that King David was a priest and a king (he was not, he was a king but not a priest), or that Jesus could be both a Jewish king and a Jewish priest. The priesthood is eternally with the tribe of Levi, through Aaron (Moses' brother) -- whereas the messiah must be descended from the tribe of Judah (through Kings David and Solomon). The Christian bible gets itself into trouble (Hebrews) by claiming "Melchitzedek" is the name of some mythical priest / king who had no father or mother (so had it had to be JESUS, right?). Hebrews goes on to say that Abraham tithed "Melchitzedek" so he had to be holier than Abraham. This ignores the fact that the King of Salem was the first one in this exchange and he honored Abram FIRST. B'reshit / Genesis 14:18. After he (Abram) returned from his victory over Chedorlaomer and his allied kings, the king of Sodom came out to greet him in Level Valley (now King's Valley). 14:18 Malkhi-tzedek king of Salem brought forth bread and wine. He was a priest to G-d, the Most High. 14:19 He blessed [Abram], and said, 'Blessed be Abram to G-d Most High, Possessor of heaven and earth." Ergo there is no prophecy that the messiah will be a priest after Melchizedek's order. There is no such thing, there is no one person named "Melchizedek" either.
7 Comments
Terry
8/8/2016 09:59:33 pm
I love your blog Please, keep up the hard work! I have argued this kohen issue till I have been blue in the face. Lol I point out to christians that Jethro was a kohen. Heck, if my knowledge of tanakh serves me well, I believe Caleb is even called a kohen. Thank you for the simplification of an issue that christians can't seem to get their heads wrapped around. I always say.... "Learn the language, you k have no idea what you're missing out on!"
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Clifford Durousseau
9/30/2018 09:40:28 am
(1) Apart from the 1985 JPS, are there other modern Jewish translations which translate Malchi-tzedek in Psalm 110:4 as a non-name?
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Clifford Durousseau
10/2/2018 02:58:42 am
You write: 'T'hillim / Psalm 110:4 may be about King David himself -- and saying that David was a king of righteousness as well as a minister (government minister / religious minister) but NOT a priest, or it may be (as Rashi thought) about Abraham, David's ancestor.'
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10/3/2018 08:24:35 am
The word כֹּהֵ֥ן / kohein, while often translated as “priest” doesn’t necessarily mean a “priest” – or even be religious (as in your question of being a religious minister).
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10/3/2018 08:25:58 am
Cliff asked "Apart from the 1985 JPS, are there other modern Jewish translations which translate Malchi-tzedek in Psalm 110:4 as a non-name?"
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Sophiee Saguy
10/3/2018 08:29:26 am
Cliff asked " You argue that Malchi-tzedek in Genesis 14:18 is not a name, but at the end of your essay here you translate it as a name. Why? (b) How would you translate Genesis 14:18 to support your argument? 'And king of righeousness king of Salem brought forth bread and wine.'? (c) Are there any Jewish translators or commentators who read Malchi-tzedek in that verse as a non-name?"
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Darryl
7/8/2021 08:26:22 am
Good explanation. I’m a little confused though. Does it not say מלכי-צדק without the “vav” in psalm 110:1?
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