G-d is unchanging. It’s right there in Torah. He even tells you not to put your trust in the "son of man" in whom there is no salvation.
Yet Jesus is called "son of man" 88 times in the Christian bible!
Matthew uses the term 32 times
Luke uses the term 25 times
John uses it 12 times
Yet the T'nach (the "OT" - "only testament") tells us: "Do not trust in princes, or in the son of man, who has no salvation." (Psalm / T'hillim 146:3).
Could it be any clearer???
If you need a few more:
"I HaShem do not change ." Malachai 3:6
"Before Me no god was formed, nor will there be one after Me. I, even I, am HaShem, and besides Me there is no Savior.” Isaiah 43:11
“I am the first and I am the last; apart from Me there is no G-d! Isaiah 44:6
"I am HaShem, and there is no other; besides Me there is no G-d" Isaiah 45:5
"Remember the first things of old, that I am G-d and there is no other; I am G-d and there is none like Me." Isaiah 46:9.
A little math for missionaries. . . 100% + 100% + 100% does not equal 1 no matter how many Trinitarians tell you that it does!
“Don’t rely on ‘princes’ or on that ‘son of man’ —he has no ‘salvation’! When his spirit departs he will turn back into his dust; on that very day all his schemes will be destroyed!” (T'hillim / Psalm 146:3-4).
The term the Son of man is used to refer to Jesus 32 times in Matthew,
The term the Son of man is in Mark 15 times,
The term the Son of man is in Luke 26 times.
The term the Son of man is in John 12 times.
In the first three gospels the title is always recorded as having been used by Jesus of himself and never by angel, by man, or by demon. "Just" Jesus as the "son of man."
Yet G-d warns you that the "son of man" has no salvation.
The son of many cannot save you.
But doesn't Jesus' Hebrew name mean salvation?
Jesus doesn't have a Hebrew name.
The Christian bible was written in Greek, not in Hebrew.
If Jesus ever lived no one knows what his Hebrew name might have been.
It is impossible that it was the Hebrew name for "salvation."
Because Hebrew nouns are either feminine or masculine. There is no "gender neutral" noun.
The Hebrew word for salvation is a FEMININE noun (יְשׁוּעָה - y'shu'AH) . Feminine as in female, girl, woman. . . not a man (let alone a son of man).
Hebrew is not spelled with vowels (only consonants), but when vocalized there is a man's name spelled somewhat similarly -- but it is not the Hebrew word for salvation. The male name is "Yeshu'a" is יֵשׁוּעַ - a masculine proper name.
Did you notice the markings under some of the letters? Hebrew is written only with consonants (no vowels), but those dots and dashes are the Masoretic diacritical markings -- symbols added to letters of the aleph bet to indicate pronunciation (basically, vowels). Not all Hebrew uses them -- the Torah does not have them, most Hebrew in Israel does not use them. . . but they are helpful with people less familiar with Hebrew pronunciation.
The Hebrew word for "salvation" is spelled differently from the masculine name Yeshu'a and it is also pronounced differently, too.
The modern usage of "Yeshua" for Jesus is a recent attempt by missionaries (most of them actively trying to convert Jews to Christianity, aka "messianic" Judaism -- an oxymoron if ever there was one) -- but if Jesus lived no one knows what his Hebrew name might have been as we have no ancient documents with his Hebrew name. People are simply "guessing" -- and for the most part, guessing poorly with limited knowledge of Hebrew.
All we know of Jesus' "name" is what is found in ancient Greek papyri. In Greek the name is Ἰησοῦς / Iesous. This would transliterate into the Aramaic form יֵֽשׁוּ Yéshu (not יֵשׁוּעַ - yeSHU'a or יְשׁוּעָה / "Y'shu'AH").
We know that Jesus (Ἰησοῦς / Iesous) can not represent the Hebrew form יֵשֽׁוּעַ / Yéshu'a (the masculine name closest to / "Y'shu'AH" aka "salvation") because Ἰησοῦς / Iesous would transliterate into "Jesuas" and no missionaries who have tried to make up a Hebrew name for Jesus have ever called Jesus "Jesuas."
The Yeshu'a name game (calling Jesus "יֵשׁוּעַ") began in the 1970s with the various Christian groups established primarily by Baptists to try to convert Jews to Christianity that had a veneer of Jewishness to it (e.g. "Jews for Jesus" and other "messianic" Christian groups). As the Baptists tried to add Jewish trappings to churches (calling their ministers "rabbi" and their churches "Synagogues) they started saying that Jesus' Hebrew name was יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a so they could pretend it is the same as the common noun יְשׁוּעָה y'shu'ah (which is feminine and means "salvation").
As shown in this post this deception is transparently obvious to anyone who can read Hebrew (even without understanding the words).
The two words' pronunciation (the feminine word meaning "salvation" versus the male name) are very different: the vowel of the first syllable of יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a is tzéré, a full-valued vowel having the sound of the "ay" in the English word bay and the accented syllable is the שֽׁוּ -shu-, whereas the yod in יְשׁוּעָה y'shu'ah is pointed with sh'va na, a "snatched" half-vowel that has no sound of it's own and causes the yod to be subsumed into the compound syllable y'shu-, and the stress in this case falls on the final syllable, -ah.
There is only one G-d, and He does not share His glory with another. There is no salvation from the "son of man."
"Remember the first things of old, that I am G-d and there is no other; I am G-d and there is none like Me." Y'shayahu / Isaiah 46:9.
G-d has revealed to us that He is not a man or a son of man in whom there is no salvation. "Do not trust in princes, or in the son of man, who has no salvation." (Psalm / T'heillim 146:3). The Christian bible calls Jesus the "son of man" over 77 times. It is not the Jews who are blind! Human beings cannot be sacrificed -- by the high priest or anyone else. BTW the only lambs sacrificed for sin were FEMALE.
Aside from the fact that human sacrifice is forbidden, Torah tells us that a proper sacrifice must be of a kosher, domestic animal (the animal is often identified as a bull, a seh (goat or lamb), etc (see Sh'mot / Exodus 13:13; Vayikra / Leviticus 22). Jesus, being a human (or even a demi-god) was obviously not a kosher animal and thus was unacceptable as a sacrifice.
The sacrificial ritual must be administered by a Jewish Priest (see Vayikra / Leviticus Chapters 1-7). According to the accounts in the Greek Testament (Christian Bible), Jesus was crucified by Roman soldiers (Matthew 27:35; Mark 15:24; Luke 23:33; John 19:18, 23). Some Christians may say that Jesus was a priest "like Melchitzedek" -- but Jewish sacrifices had to be brought by Jewish priests who were of the tribe of Levi and descended from Aaron (Moses' brother) -- which would exclude Jesus (see Sh'mot / Exodus 29:9 and Bamidbar / Numbers 25:13 for two of many references). The so-called priesthood of "Melchitzedek" is non-existant (the King of Salem was a king of righteousness -- which is what the words "malki and tzedek" mean). The King of Salem (Shem) in B'reshit / Genesis was NOT Jewish ergo his priesthood had nothing to do with Judaism or Jewish sacrifices! In Psalm / T'hellim 110 where the phrase is used again it is simply referring to King David who was also a king of righteousness (malki - tzedek).
Torah further tells us that the blood of the (cheit / sin) sacrifice had to be sprinkled by the Jewish Priest on the veil of the sanctuary and on the altar in the Temple (e.g., Vayikra / Leviticus 4: 5-6). Christian Bible evidence clearly shows this was not done.
Then it tells us that the (cheit / sin) sacrifice must be without any physical defect or blemish (e.g., Vayikra / Leviticus 4:3). According to the various accounts in the Christian Bible, Jesus was beaten, whipped, and dragged on the ground before being crucified (Matthew 26:67, 27:26, 30-31; Mark 14: 65, 15:15-20; Luke 22: 63; John 18:22, 19:1, 3). Moreover, as a Jew by birth, Jesus was circumcised on the eighth day after being born, a ritual that leaves a scar ("sign of the covenant"). According to the Christian Bible, circumcision is tantamount to mutilation (Philippians 3:2, Galatians 5:12).
Torah says that the Passover animal was to be a male-goat, be offered on an individual (per household) basis (Bamidbar / Numbers 28:22), not as a communal offering. According to the Christian Bible, Jesus’ death (termed a “sin sacrifice”) expiated the sins of mankind (Romans 6:10; Hebrews 9:12, 10:10, 10:18 ). It was not a sacrifice -- it was a celebratory offering to G-d (read the bible!).
The phrase the "lamb of god" is pagan. Read up on Greek gods. . . the Jewish sacrifices of bulls, goats, sheep, birds, etc. were all of pagan gods to show the power of the real G-d over false gods. . . they are for us (not for G-d) -- a gift from G-d to man. . . more on that if you desire an explanation.